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Old 12-14-2008, 08:31 AM   #95
OBW
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Default Re: "Early Nee" vs. "Later Nee"

Quote:
Originally Posted by Gubei View Post
Please show me any as prescriptive verses in the Bible, saying "elders are not according to cities" as these two verses. Which interpretation does the Bible support?
This is the primary problem with your whole argument. There were, at the time, not clearly any more than one assembly in any city, although there are mentions of churches in someone’s house which does open some uncertainty on that assumption. But nowhere does scripture clearly associate the existence of a church (an assembly) exclusively with a city with no others present. It merely notes that there was one at the time by writing to that one. And even if there was, the writing to those in a particular city by the singular word does not become uncertain. The writing would be to all of them.

Jesus didn’t say “I will build one church in each city.” He said “I will build my church.” This overarching reference to “assembly” or ‘church” in such a universal way does not support “one city one church.” It merely establishes a oneness among believers that transcends time and space without making any comment on the realities of time and space.

You can say that there is no scripture denying your position. But there is also no scripture that denies the use of modern music styles rather than music that was modern to someone else’s generation. But nowhere does it say that we must use modern music. Or 17th century music. Or simply two-generations-old music. There is no doctrine on the subject. We have no such tradition in our assemblies. Do you?

Same here. The “one city one church” is already established as a prescription of Lee not supported by scripture. It is not a bad idea. But it is not prescribed. But it is also not denied. That is not an opening through which you are permitted to drive a requirement.

Lack of denial is not support for requirement. You have made no case by taking such a position. It is an argument that is not supported by scripture or logic. And don’t fall back on “spiritual discernment” as some others have done in the past. Spiritual discernment is not contrary to scripture.

If you are unable to do more than show descriptions of what was and extrapolate from descriptive to prescriptive, then this discussion is over. I will not keep going on it. The rational debate is over. If you want to hold to something not supported by scripture, you are free to do so. But you cannot make a claim that it is a requirement applicable to the rest of us.
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