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Originally Posted by testallthings
Mat:13:1 On that day Jesus went out of the house and sat beside the sea.
Footnote 13:1.1 "At the end of ch. 12 the heavenly King, having been fully rejected by the leaders of the Jewish religion, made a break with them. On that day He went out of the house and sat beside the sea. This is very significant. The house signifies the house of Israel (10:6), and the sea signifies the Gentile world (Dan. 7:3, 17; Rev. 17:15).
The King's going out of the house to sit beside the sea signifies that after His break with the Jews, He forsook the house of Israel and turned to the Gentiles. It was after this, while on the seashore, that He gave the parables concerning the mysteries of the kingdom. This signifies that the mysteries of the kingdom were revealed in the church. Hence, all the parables in this chapter were spoken to His disciples, not to the Jews."
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His disciples were Jews. See e.g. Peter arguing with a voice from heaven: “Surely not, Lord!” Peter replied. “I have never eaten anything impure or unclean.” (Acts 10:14). After Jesus had left, Peter was still holding to Jewish dietary practices. And they were going to the temple, synagogues, etc. The big difference between Peter and the "Jews" was that Peter believed Jesus was the foretold (Jewish) Messiah, King of Israel. The others of course didn't.
Also note that Jesus left the house in Matthew 13:1 and went by the sea, to speak in parables. After speaking to them, 13:36 says He left the crowds and went back into the house. No footnote. I guess the house subsequently lost typological significance.
Quote:
Originally Posted by testallthings
Mat. 10:1, RcV “And He called His twelve disciples to Him and gave them authority over unclean spirits, so that they would cast them out and heal every disease and every sickness.”
We have some questions. Why the Lord Jesus chose 12 apostles, why not 11 or 13 or 25, etc.? Why did he send them only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel? Why did He charge them not to go to the Gentiles or to the Samaritans? Why the RcV avoids commenting on these verses? We have a simple explanation. These verses stand clearly against all the baseless claims in the footnotes, already analyzed in the previous posts, about the Lord Jesus leaving the Jews to turn to the Gentile.
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In defense of the Recovery footnotes, the charge to go to the house of Israel and not the Gentiles is in chapter 10. The "leaving the house" is in chapter 13. I suppose there's a sort of chronological narrative, here.