[testallthings]

To aron

You are right, of course. Recently I have been to much concerned about how to answer Ohio, that I have lost track of the footnotes already covevered. Thanks for pointing that out. I went back to chapter 10! Of course what I have written in my last post cannot be applied to chapter 13! But it still holds true to what I wrote about chapter 5 where the footnote says that the Lord spoke to Christians and not to Jews. If He was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel His message in chapter 5 was meant evidently to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Originally Posted by testallthings View Post
Mat. 10:1, RcV “And He called His twelve disciples to Him and gave them authority over unclean spirits, so that they would cast them out and heal every disease and every sickness.”

We have some questions. Why the Lord Jesus chose 12 apostles, why not 11 or 13 or 25, etc.? Why did he send them only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel? Why did He charge them not to go to the Gentiles or to the Samaritans? Why the RcV avoids commenting on these verses? We have a simple explanation. These verses stand clearly against all the baseless claims in the footnotes, already analyzed in the previous posts, about the Lord Jesus leaving the Jews to turn to the Gentile.



Let me rephrase the last sentence. These verses clearly point to the strong Jewish character of the Gospel of Matthew and the ministry of the Lord Jesus for His people, the lost sheep of the house of Israel. What the footnotes throughout the Gospel of Matthew try to prove is just the opposite, the Lord Jesus leaving the Jews to turn to the Gentiles. This, I think I have clearly proved, didn't happen until Acts 28.

Sorry for the mistake, and thanks again to aron for the prompt finding. If W. Lee was alive I even would have apologized to him.