MONSTROUS INTERPRETATION
Mat 27:45 Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over the whole land until the ninth hour;
Mat 27:46 but about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? (Darby)
1. Footnote 2 of verse 46 says,
“God forsook Christ on the cross because He took the place of sinners (1 Pet. 3:18) — He bore our sins (1 Pet. 2:24; Isa. 53:6) and was made sin for us (2 Cor. 5:21).” (The New Testament Recovery Version, Revised edition 1991, published by Living Stream Ministry, Aneheim, California)
I believe many are familiar with the teaching that the Lord Jesus became our substitute on the cross and, even as a footnote on verse 45 affirms, that was in the last three hours that He bore our sins. It seems that there isn't anything wrong with this teaching, and actually I agree with it. The problem starts when we look at the references, especially 2 Cor. 5:21 and its relative footnote:
Footnote 2 on verse 21 says,
“Sin came from Satan, who rebelled against God (Isa. 14:12-14). This sin, which came out of the evil one, entered into man (Rom. 5:12) and made man not only a sinner but sin itself under God's judgment. Hence, when Christ became a man in the flesh (John 1:14), He was made sin (not sinful) on our behalf to be judged by God (Rom. 8:3) that we might become God's righteousness in Him.” (The New Testament Recovery Version, Revised edition 1991, published by Living Stream Ministry, Aneheim, California)
There are many things here that deserve a detailed study. For example, sin can be translated sin offering. This will be more appropriate, but I don't want to pursue this argument. What I am interested in, at the moment is to compare what W. Lee says about when Christ was made sin. In Mat. He says that He was made sin on the cross, and he points to 2 Cor. 5:21. Then commenting on 2 Cor. 5:21, he says that He was made sin when He became a man, that is in His incarnation. W. Lee is assuming that flesh and sin are synonyms.
“In verse 21 Paul says that Christ was made sin on our behalf so that we might become God's righteousness in Him. Sin here is actually synonymous with the flesh. John 1:14 says that Christ as the Word became flesh. Second Corinthians 5:21 says that He was made sin. According to Romans 8:3, God sent His Son in the likeness of the flesh of sin. Thus, sin and the flesh are synonyms.” (W. Lee, Life-Study of 2 Corinthians, Chapter 37, Section 3)
http://www.ministrybooks.org/SearchM...?id=2801FFE2C8
“When we put John 1:14 together with 2 Corinthians 5:21, we see that when Christ became flesh, He was made sin. In the sight of God we, as fallen flesh, are actually sin. We are not only sinful and are not only sinners—we are sin itself. Because Christ became flesh, in this sense He was made sin on our behalf.”
(W. Lee, Life-Study of 2 Corinthians, Chapter 14, Section 4)
http://www.ministrybooks.org/SearchM...?id=2802F6EECA
Synonyms? I think it takes a lot more to prove that two terms are synonyms. But let's consider them (for an instant) as synonyms. The first aberrant corollary, from this explanations, if we compare the two footnotes in question is, Christ was made flesh (sin) on the cross, according to the footnote in Mat. 27:46, but according to the footnote in 2 Cor. 5:21 he was made flesh (sin) in incarnation. Why do we have to put John 1:14 with 2 Cor. 5:21? What do they have in common?
Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and we have contemplated his glory, a glory as of an only-begotten with a father), full of grace and truth;
2Co 5:21 Him who knew not sin he has made sin for us, that *we* might become God's righteousness in him.
Even if we consider became and made as loose synonyms, in John it is clear that the subject is incarnation. What then is the subject of 2 Cor. 5:21? Is it incarnation, too? Let's see. Here is the context:
2Co 5:14 For the love of the Christ constrains us, having judged this: that one died for all, then all have died;
2Co 5:15 and he died for all, that they who live should no longer live to themselves, but to him who died for them and has been raised.
2Co 5:16 So that *we* henceforth know no one according to flesh; but if even we have known Christ according to flesh, yet now we know him thus no longer.
2Co 5:17 So if any one be in Christ, there is a new creation; the old things have passed away; behold all things have become new:
2Co 5:18 and all things are of the God who has reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and given to us the ministry of that reconciliation:
2Co 5:19 how that God was in Christ, reconciling the world to himself, not reckoning to them their offences; and putting in us the word of that reconciliation.
2Co 5:20 We are ambassadors therefore for Christ, God as it were beseeching by us, we entreat for Christ, Be reconciled to God.
2Co 5:21 Him who knew not sin he has made sin for us, that *we* might become God's righteousness in him.
Paul specifically mention Christ's death in verses 14 and 15. In verse 18 he says that God has reconciled all things by Jesus Christ. Certainly this couldn't happen at the incarnation but at the crucifixion. It is than quite odd to conclude that verse 21 speaks of Christ's incarnation. I conclude, with the words of J.N. Darby,
Note here the monstrous interpretation which I had heretofore supposed it impossible for any to hold, that "him who knew no sin" means Jesus in His divinity; and "made sin" the incarnation, "that holy thing," not the cross and atonement then.
STEM Publishing: J. N. Darby: Union in Incarnation, the root error of modern theology.
http://www.stempublishing.com/author...NE/29006E.html
(This article is a must-read, IMHO)