Quote:
Originally Posted by Trapped
BJB, how do you interpret John 1:18?
New International Version
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
New Living Translation
No one has ever seen God. But the unique One, who is himself God, is near to the Father’s heart. He has revealed God to us.
English Standard Version
No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known.
Berean Study Bible
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
Berean Literal Bible
No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known.
New American Standard Bible
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
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John 10:34 - "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are "gods"'?
I doubt you've stumped BJB, but please allow me to interject. Obviously you know of other translations, and have selected the ones that support your proclivities.
As exemplified by the account of the adulterous woman, John has been meddled with -- the manuscripts don't agree -- and that's why the translations don't agree. In the ones you've selected perhaps a little 'g' god reveals big 'G" God the Father.
Plus, how could Jesus be in his own bosom?
Keep trying bro Trapped, you haven't cinched your argument with that verse. Exemplary try tho.