[UntoHim]

Ah, I see that Trapped is channeling his inner Boxjobox! I love it!

I think this might be a bit of a sidetrack from the discussions here.....but, what the heck....this thread has pretty much been blown to bits anyway!

Let's take a look at the verse and question and try to put it in a wider context (by comparing and contrasting the verse coming right before)

1 Corinthians 8:6 - εἷς θεὸς ὁ πατήρ ἐξ οὗ τὰ πάντα καὶ ἡμεῖς εἰς αὐτόν καὶ εἷς κύριος Ἰησοῦς Χριστός
there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ,

1 Corinthians 8:5 - καὶ γὰρ εἴπερ εἰσὶν λεγόμενοι θεοὶ εἴτε ἐν οὐρανῷ εἴτε ἐπὶ γῆς ὥσπερ εἰσὶν θεοὶ πολλοὶ καὶ κύριοι πολλοί
For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many gods and many lords.

#1 Notice the sequence - One God...and one Lord, Jesus Christ. As many of you know the Greek word for Lord is κύριος This word can indicate THE LORD of heaven and earth. It can also indicate a human lord of sorts. It is clear from the context, and from the other writings of the apostle Paul, that he is referring to THE LORD of heaven and earth.

#2 Notice the wording/terms Paul used in verse 5. "many gods and many lords". Paul is equating the two - gods and lords. They are equal. They are on the same level. Then he immediately launches into the next verse with nearly the identical grammatical construct. Unfortunately, this is much clearer in the Greek than it is in the English, but I think that it is clear enough in the English that my point should be well taken.
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