Translation & More

[Freedom]

Originally Posted by testallthings

DID MEN BEGIN TO CALL UPON THE NAME OF THE LORD OR DID THEY BEGIN TO WORSHIP IDOLS?

This is an interesting possibility regarding the meaning of Genesis 4:26. Quite honestly, I was a bit shocked to see that it could be interpreted in a way completely opposite from I am accustomed to. I had never given such a possibility any thought before.

Sure enough, I found at least one translation that actually translates the verse that way: Seth also fathered a son, whom he named Enosh. At that time, profaning the name of the LORD began. (ISV)

It's probably fair to say that either possibility is just as likely, however, because the LC has made a rigid practice out of this, the implications are much more severe if it turns out that the meaning is completely the opposite. By the way, I do consider yelling "Oh Lord Jesus" at the top of ones lungs to be a type of profaning of the Lord's name, especially if it is done for show. It is disrespectful of the Lord to say the least.